Question:
My name is Bethany, and recently I have been trying to
learn Greek. One reason is to be able to (hopefully) better understand the
bible. But also because of what it says at John 1:1. There it says that the
Word was with God and the word was God. But a friend of mine, who is a devote
Christian, pointed out the Greek there. The spelling for God, in the sentence 'and
the word was God' is different than the spelling of God else where. I looked at this
and saw it too. This same spelling is seen when referring to 'other' gods. My
friend and I are wondering if maybe the translation wasn't done correctly. Maybe it
should say 'and the word was a god' or something of the sort. Please look into this,
with an open mind.
Thank you for your help. May God guide you and protect
you.
Bethany.
Answer:
In answering your question, let me first note that
understanding the Greek text of the New Testament is extremely important and necessary for
a clear apprehension of what the writers of the New Testament meant as they wrote the
letters and accounts that we now enjoy. One note of caution is needful because
Greek, like every language, has its own nuances and ways of saying things that can lead to
confusion or misunderstanding when looking at it from the perspective of an English (or
foreign) reader. An excellent example of this is the phrase you asked about in John
1:1.
The Apparent Difference in Spelling
First of all, the same Greek word is used in both
occurrences of the word "God" in John 1:1. This same word is used in many
contexts, whether it refers to the Only True God or whether it is referring to a false god
- such as a man-made god (1 Cor. 8:5) or Satan as the ‘god of this age’ (2 Cor.
4:4). The apparent differences in spelling between the word ‘God’ in the
phrase ‘and the Word was God’ (‘theos’) and in other places, (even in
the previous phrase, ‘and the Word was with God’ (‘theon’)) is due to
inflection in the Greek language. Each Greek noun normally has 8 or 9 forms (cases
& number)
in which it can appear. (See my page on ‘Inflection’
and ‘Cases’ on the Web site). In the first
instance in John 1:1 it is the object of preposition and thus is in the accusative case.
In the phrase in question, it is in the nominative case
(indicating the subject or predicate nominative - equal to
the subject). But it is the same word for ‘God’, and in both phrases here
indicates the One and Only True God. So the apparent difference is spelling is not
because ‘theos’ is a different word than ‘theon’, but is a different
form of the identical word.
The Lack of a Greek Definite Article
Another common confusion in John 1:1 comes from the
fact that in Greek there is no definite article in front
of the word ‘God’ (‘theos’) in the phrase ‘and the Word was
God’. The confusion arises from an assumption that if there is no definite
article in the Greek, then it must have an indefinite meaning and thus should be
translated with the indefinite article "a". Based on this understanding,
some argue that this phrase in John 1:1 should be translated "the word was a
god," rather than "the word was God." It is important at this point
to understand that the Greek language has a definite article (‘the’), but does
not have an indefinite article (‘a’ or ‘an’). In certain
instances, when the Greek omits a definite article, it may be appropriate to insert an
indefinite article for the sake of the English translation and understanding. But we
cannot assume that this is always appropriate. Greek does not operate in the same
way as English does in regard to the use of the words ‘the’ and
‘a’. In many instances in which English would not include the word
‘the’, the Greek text includes it. (We don’t see it in the English
translations because it would sound non-sensible in our language.) (See Note 1, below.) And in many cases where the
Greek omits the definite article, the English translation requires it to convey the
correct meaning of the Greek. (See Note 2,
below.) Therefore it cannot be assumed that if the definite article is absent, then
an indefinite article should be inserted. (For a clear illustration of this, see
an example of the use of the word
‘God’ and the definite article in John chapter one.) Furthermore, even
though the Greek language does not have an ‘indefinite article’ like we think of
in English, there is a way in Greek for the writer to indicate the indefinite idea and
thus avoid confusion. This is done in Greek by using the Greek indefinite pronoun
‘tis’.
In John 1:1 there is no definite article in front of
the word ‘God’ in the phrase, ‘and the Word was God’. However,
in this instance, it cannot just be assumed that the word ‘God’ is meant to be
‘indefinite’, and therefore an indefinite article used in the English
translation. Because the first use of the word ‘God’ in John 1:1
(‘the Word was with God’) clearly refers to the Only True God, the Eternal
Pre-existent Creator, more than likely John would have used a different Greek construction
than he did if he had meant for this next phrase (‘and the Word was God’) to
refer to a ‘lesser’ god, and did not want us to confuse this with the True God
he had just mentioned. If John meant to avoid confusion, when making such a
definitive statement, he could have done so by using this ‘indefinite pronoun’
(‘tis’) as an adjective. This would have made it clear that the Word was ‘a
certain god’, but not the one he was just referring to. For examples of this,
see the verses Mark 14:51, Luke 8:27, Luke 1:5, and Luke 11:1 (among many, many other
examples). So, it seems that by the Greek grammatical structure in this statement,
John is indicating that the Word (Jesus Christ - John 1:14) is the same essence and nature
as God the Father.
(For a more thorough explanation of the function and
use of the Greek article (and meaning of its absence), see ‘Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics’, by
Daniel Wallace. He includes fifty pages - entitled ‘The Article, Part
I’ - which is a more complete treatment of the subject that many grammar books
present and explains all the general uses of the article. He actually has a
‘Part II’ which discusses some special issues with the article. Fifteen
pages of this second section apply directly to understanding this passage in John
1:1. It is highly recommended for those who really desire an honest and thorough
understanding of this passage.)
The Predicate Coming Before the Subject
Also, this phrase in John 1:1 is an example of a
predicate nominative coming first in the sentence, before
the subject. (Sentences like this one that use a linking verb require the noun in
the predicate part of the sentence to be in the nominative case. Thus the phrase 'predicate nominative'.)
The subject of this clause is ‘the Word’ and the predicate is ‘God’.
In Greek, the word ‘God’ comes before the word ‘Word’. According
to normal Greek usage (Colwell's Rule), the word ‘God’ should not have a
definite article. Oftentimes, emphasis is shown in Greek by placing a word out of
its normal, expected word order. Special emphasis is shown when the predicate comes first
in the sentence. In other words, contrary to the thought that ‘since there is
no definite article used here it could belittle the fact
of the Word being God’, the fact that the word ‘God’ is used first in the
sentence actually shows some emphasis that this Logos (Word) was in fact God in its
nature. However, since it does not have the definite article, it does indicate that
this Word was not the same ‘person’ as the Father God, but has the same
‘essence’ and ‘nature’.
The Context of All of the Apostle John’s Writings
It is also necessary to see this statement in
context of the rest of John’s writings. When comparing this with other statements
about who the person and nature of Jesus Christ really is, it adds to what is already made
clear by the Greek grammar. See for instance: John 8:56-59 (cf. Exo. 3:13-14); 10:28-33;
14:6-11; 1 John 5:20; (also John 8:23; 3:12-13; 5:17-18). These verses also indicate
that, in John’s understanding and thus the Bible’s clear statements, Jesus
Christ is the same essence and nature as God the Father, but distinct in their
person-hood.
Consulting with Other Well Respected Greek Scholars and Grammarians
For a further explanation and clarification about
these items, it is helpful to consult with many of the well respected Greek scholars and
expositors. Personally I have never come across any objective, well respected Greek
grammarian that has come up with different conclusions that what has been presented
here. Many of them go into much more detail than I have in these few short
paragraphs. See for instance the writings of Daniel Wallace (‘Greek Grammar
Beyond the Basics’), A.T. Robertson (both his ‘Grammar’ and ‘Word
Pictures’), R.C.H. Lenski (in his commentary on the Gospel of John), Henry Alford
(‘Greek Testament’), J.A. Bengel (‘Word Studies), Albert Barnes
(‘Barnes’ Notes’), B.F. Westcott, and F.L. Godet, (and many others).
Final Comment
Bethany, I hope this helps to answer your questions.
Obviously you are asking about a very large topic that can only be touched upon in such a
small answer. My answer here is not meant to argue some theological doctrine, but to
point out how important it is to have a pure heart when seeking God in His revealed
speaking (the Bible) and how much it helps to know the Greek language in helping to answer
some very complicated questions. A little (and incomplete) knowledge of Greek can do
more harm than good when people try to apply it beyond their scope of knowledge. I
beg you to seek the Lord honestly and continue to love Him with your whole heart. 1
Corinthians 8:1b-3 says, ‘Knowledge puffs up, but love builds up. And if anyone
thinks that he knows anything, he knows nothing yet as he ought to know. But if anyone
loves God, this one is known by Him’. Many questions that are beyond our human
understanding will only be answered when we see Him face to face. But for now, we continue
to love Him and seek Him with our whole heart. The rest is up to Him. Please let me
know if I can be of further help or guidance.
